On the "Nurse jailed" thread, you wrote, as a response to my post
here
Rigpig wrote:
My question was, 'can the majority be wrong', IMHO your answer turned it around to 'is it right to prosecute?' I see a difference there although I accept others may not agree.
Your question was asked in the context of "The normally careful and competent actions of a reasonable individual should be considered legal". Actually, that is a misquote, it should be "The careful and competent actions of a majority of reasonable people should be considered legal", which is somewhat different. It was also asked in the context of speeding law and I am not trying to answer it in any other context.
The implicit question in your question is how can we reconcile, on literal interpretation of speeding law (a strict liability offence), the general observation that a majority of reasonable people are law-abiding with the fact that a majority of reasonable people are (apparently) breaking the law from time to time by exceeding speed limits.
My response (the 'essay' I reposted) provides that reconciliation. It contains the proposition that the boundary between law observance and law breaking is not the the literal meaning of the law but 'something else', that something else being defined by the scope and scale of speed enforcement activity.
I understand this proposition may be hard to accept. I thought about it for a long time and very deeply, but eventually came to the conclusion that it is the only way to reconcile what is otherwise irreconcilable. The only alternative I could see is that all people who exceed speed limits, by whatever degree, are criminals (and, according to Caroline Flint and Richard Brunstrom, serious criminals). That proposition is impossible to accept, so I have to accept the alternative proposition, namely that the literal interpretation of law does not define the boundary.
That's it. I think it answers your question directly.