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PostPosted: Wed Sep 08, 2010 21:19 
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Johnnytheboy wrote:
(* - can any engineers answer me a question? Do brakes generate equal force at different speeds? What I can remember of my MEng makes me think that brakes would exert a greater force at higher speeds, and consequently a gap of equal time at a higher speed would allow for more braking to be applied. But ! could be wrong :scratchchin: ).

I'm no engineer, but it's my understanding that, as speed rises, the amount of brake force required increases geometrically, so it would take (roughly) twice the force to slow from 80 to 40 than it would to slow from 40 to 0. Therefore braking times increase more than relative to speed. This is why the theoretical maximum throughput of a road (assuming keeping a "safe" distance) occurs at around 17 mph.


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PostPosted: Wed Sep 08, 2010 21:46 
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PeterE wrote:
Johnnytheboy wrote:
(* - can any engineers answer me a question? Do brakes generate equal force at different speeds? What I can remember of my MEng makes me think that brakes would exert a greater force at higher speeds, and consequently a gap of equal time at a higher speed would allow for more braking to be applied. But ! could be wrong :scratchchin: ).

I'm no engineer, but it's my understanding that, as speed rises, the amount of brake force required increases geometrically, so it would take (roughly) twice the force to slow from 80 to 40 than it would to slow from 40 to 0. Therefore braking times increase more than relative to speed. This is why the theoretical maximum throughput of a road (assuming keeping a "safe" distance) occurs at around 17 mph.


I think you are confusing force and energy. If you had to press harder at high speed then you would have to back off the brake pedal to stop the wheels locking as you slowed down. Assuming you started at a high level of braking of course.

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PostPosted: Wed Sep 08, 2010 21:50 
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PeterE wrote:
Johnnytheboy wrote:
(* - can any engineers answer me a question? Do brakes generate equal force at different speeds? What I can remember of my MEng makes me think that brakes would exert a greater force at higher speeds, and consequently a gap of equal time at a higher speed would allow for more braking to be applied. But ! could be wrong :scratchchin: ).

I'm no engineer, but it's my understanding that, as speed rises, the amount of brake force required increases geometrically, so it would take (roughly) twice the force to slow from 80 to 40 than it would to slow from 40 to 0. Therefore braking times increase more than relative to speed. This is why the theoretical maximum throughput of a road (assuming keeping a "safe" distance) occurs at around 17 mph.

F = m * a (force = mass x acceleration)

The same force is required to slow from 80 to 40 (in say 4 seconds) as 40 to 0 (in that same 4 second timeframe).

The brake force is proportional to the rate of deceleration, regardless of the actual speed.

The power being dissipated is proportional to the speed. Three times the energy needs to be dumped (as heat through the disks) from 80 to 40 compared to 40 to 0 (assuming no significant drag losses)

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PostPosted: Wed Sep 08, 2010 21:59 
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PeterE wrote:
I'm no engineer, but it's my understanding that, as speed rises, the amount of brake force required increases geometrically, so it would take (roughly) twice the force to slow from 80 to 40 than it would to slow from 40 to 0. Therefore braking times increase more than relative to speed. This is why the theoretical maximum throughput of a road (assuming keeping a "safe" distance) occurs at around 17 mph.


The braking force is constant with speed, depending only on the amount of pedal pressure applied. However, as the brake disks are moving at twice the speed relative to the pads at twice the vehicle speed, the amount of energy dissipated by the brakes is twice as much per unit time with the same force. And, as the vehicle takes twice the time to stop from twice the speed, the total energy dissipated is 2 x 2 = 4 times as much - which fits in nicely with the formula: kinetic energy = 0.5 * mass * (speed) squared

But with modern brakes the limiting factor is not the braking force but almost always the friction coefficient between the tyres and the road. Nonetheless, the deceleration is virtually linear with speed, so you'll take twice the time to brake from twice the speed. (which equates to 4 times the distance)

I don't see what this has got to do with the throughput of the road, though. :scratchchin:

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PostPosted: Wed Sep 08, 2010 22:07 
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Well it looks like everyone hs beaten me to it. I have little to add apart from asking what you mean by "braking force"? Everyone has assumed it means the retardation force acting backwards on the car, through it's tyre contact patches. Is that what you mean? (I just wondered if you perhaps meant the force that the driver must apply to the brake pedal)!

Anyway, the other way to look at braking force is that it's the force you feel "pulling" you towards the front of the car. (That being equal and opposite to the force acting backwards on the car (and everything in it) through it's tyre contact patches.


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PostPosted: Wed Sep 08, 2010 22:11 
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Mole wrote:
Well it looks like everyone hs beaten me to it. I have little to add apart from asking what you mean by "braking force"? Everyone has assumed it means the retardation force acting backwards on the car, through it's tyre contact patches. Is that what you mean? (I just wondered if you perhaps meant the force that the driver must apply to the brake pedal)!

Anyway, the other way to look at braking force is that it's the force you feel "pulling" you towards the front of the car. (That being equal and opposite to the force acting backwards on the car (and everything in it) through it's tyre contact patches.


They're the same thing, just expressed differently.

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