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 Post subject: Homicide and Homicidal
PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 01:05 
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botach wrote:
World's gone compo crazy . Motorist found texting is automatically guilty . yet ped ,with mind fully on text mode , is relieved of responsibilities:


What responsibility. Responsibility to get out of the way of a homicidal motorist?


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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 01:07 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
What responsibility. Responsibility to get out of the way of a homicidal motorist?


Kindly put brain in gear before engaging mouth

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 01:18 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
Mouth?


mouth, keyboard, whatever

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 01:41 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
What responsibility. Responsibility to get out of the way of a homicidal motorist?

negligent OR distracted != homicidal (unless you can reason there was an actual tendency to kill?)

Please can we refrain from misleading and emotive arguments.

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 09:16 
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Steve wrote:
negligent OR distracted != homicidal (unless you can reason there was an actual tendency to kill?)


Killing someone is homicide. It becomes criminal homicide when there is mens rea

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 12:59 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
Steve wrote:
negligent OR distracted != homicidal (unless you can reason there was an actual tendency to kill?)

Killing someone is homicide. It becomes criminal homicide when there is mens rea

Irrelevant; you've moved the goalposts!

There is a difference between homicide and "homicidal" - the latter was your exact wording in your first post (which is what I've taken issue with).
Only the latter will have your mens rea; the former is merely the act regardless of how it is intended.

If you cannot demonstrate the necessary 'tendency to kill', then by the token of your previous applied logic, you've shown an anti-motorist prejudice.

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 14:50 
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Steve wrote:
There is a difference between homicide and "homicidal"

Indeed there is. One is a noun and the other is an adjective. :)
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Only the latter will have your mens rea; the former is merely the act regardless of how it is intended.

Homicidal behaviour does not require mens rea. Any behaviour which leads to a human death is, by definition, homicidal. I am aware that, because of the many American police procedural programmes on television, homicide is often misunderstood as meaning only criminal homicide; but the correct term for that is either murder or manslaughter.
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... you've shown an anti-motorist prejudice.

No. An anti homicidal motorist prejudice. A prejudice which I hope all right thinking people will share.

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 15:06 
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Gotta say dcb, at first I thought your comments were tongue-in-cheek; really rather amused that you actually believe that! :lol:

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 15:08 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
Steve wrote:
There is a difference between homicide and "homicidal"
...
Only the latter will have your mens rea; the former is merely the act regardless of how it is intended.

Homicidal behaviour does not require mens rea.

Any behaviour which leads to a human death is, by definition, homicidal.

Incorrect.

Any act that leads to a human death is, by definition, homicide.
Any tendency to commit that death is, by definition, homicidal.

In this case you cannot show any tendency or mens rea. You cannot show the driver was homicidal even though he (could have) committed homicide.

Any right thinking person will easily (and correctly) understand that one's actions can lead to death without one being homicidal, as well understanding that one can be homicidal without actually resulting with any deaths.

Let's consider the unfortunate pedestrian in this particular case: your flawed logic also yields the conclusion that this pedestrian must have been suicidal - is that right Dave, or could the pedestrian have been merely negligent (without being suicidal)?

Motorists are no more homicidal than pedestrians are suicidal - and I'm not saying pedestrians are suicidal, although I suspect you will, Dave!



Oh yes, to finish off:
dcbwhaley wrote:
Any behaviour which leads to a human death is, by definition, homicidal.

There was no death in this case. Therefore, by your own (flawed) logic, the driver wasn't homicidal!
Either way, your argument is still wrong!

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 17:23 
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Steve wrote:
Any act that leads to a human death is, by definition, homicide.
Any tendency to commit that death is, by definition, homicidal.


I am not sure what "tendency to commit death means". If by that you mean behaving in manner which might cause death then that is not homicidal. A death must occur for the action to be homicidal.

Quote:
In this case you cannot show any tendency or mens rea. You cannot show the driver was homicidal even though he (could have) committed homicide.

I don't need to show mens rea. I death occured the action which caused it was homicide.

Quote:
Any right thinking person will easily (and correctly) understand that one's actions can lead to death without one being homicidal, as well understanding that one can be homicidal without actually resulting with any deaths.

No no no! Dictionary definition of homicide is Killing of a human being esp by another. You are trying to redefine the word to include some element of criminality - watching too much CSI Miama perhaps. :)

Quote:
Let's consider the unfortunate pedestrian in this particular case: your flawed logic also yields the conclusion that this pedestrian must have been suicidal - is that right Dave, or could the pedestrian have been merely negligent (without being suicidal)?

Unlike homicide the definition of suicide - Intentional self-slaughter - does include intent. So, indeed, the pedestrian was negligent rather than suicidal.

Quote:
There was no death in this case. Therefore, by your own (flawed) logic, the driver wasn't homicidal! Either way, your argument is still wrong!

Yes, I just reread the OP and am wiping egg of my face :D But it doesn't destroy my argument that any action which causes death is , by definition homicidal.

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PostPosted: Fri Nov 05, 2010 17:33 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
Unlike homicide the definition of suicide - Intentional self-slaughter - does include intent. So, indeed, the pedestrian was negligent rather than suicidal.

How do they know that I wonder? Many people commit suicide not because they want to die but as a cry for help. The dead in such a case are hard to interview, although not impossible some would say :D

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PostPosted: Sat Nov 06, 2010 00:33 
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Big Tone wrote:
How do they know that I wonder? Many people commit suicide not because they want to die but as a cry for help. The dead in such a case are hard to interview, although not impossible some would say :D


Tone. I will bow to your much greater experience here, but wouldn't be more accurate to say that many people make an unsuccessful attempt at suicide as a cry for help. I have spend a few evenings on the hill with the MR team looking for that kind of person.

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PostPosted: Sat Nov 06, 2010 01:27 
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I call shenanigans, if you want to utilise the etymologically correct sense of the word homicide, that is, killing one which is the same (species) as oneself, the you must exercise the same precision with the term suicide, meaning to kill oneself, absent of any requirement for state of mind. That cake is not available for both having and eating!

Be that as it may, I was wondering how long it would take you to realise that nobody was killed in the case at hand.

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PostPosted: Sat Nov 06, 2010 01:44 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
I am not sure what "tendency to commit death means". If by that you mean behaving in manner which might cause death then that is not homicidal. A death must occur for the action to be homicidal.


Agree to a degree with the first part, not with the second. If the intention to cause death exists in a cause of action then it is homicidal. I feel that you have focussed too much on the actus reus, to the neglect of the mens rea.

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PostPosted: Sat Nov 06, 2010 08:49 
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RobinXe wrote:
I call shenanigans, if you want to utilise the etymologically correct sense of the word homicide, that is, killing one which is the same (species) as oneself, the you must exercise the same precision with the term suicide, meaning to kill oneself, absent of any requirement for state of mind. That cake is not available for both having and eating!


I was equally precise in my use of both terms. The distinction that I was making was that of intent: killing someone else accidentally is homicide; killing yourself accidentally is not suicide.

Quote:
Be that as it may, I was wondering how long it would take you to realise that nobody was killed in the case at hand.

Yes, rather stupid of me, but it did provoke an interesting argument.

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PostPosted: Sat Nov 06, 2010 08:53 
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RobinXe wrote:
dcbwhaley wrote:
I am not sure what "tendency to commit death means". If by that you mean behaving in manner which might cause death then that is not homicidal. A death must occur for the action to be homicidal.


Agree to a degree with the first part, not with the second. If the intention to cause death exists in a cause of action then it is homicidal. I feel that you have focussed too much on the actus reus, to the neglect of the mens rea.


Having a little difficulty interpreting you, Robin. Is it "A death must occur for the action to be homicidal" that you are disagreeing with?

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PostPosted: Sat Nov 06, 2010 09:44 
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There were various mistakes here - inattention and total un-awareness by both parties.
Ped know that if they simply walk onto the road - it can be dangerous even fatal, we are all likely have been taught this from an early age. Unless he was suicidal, he probably didn't intend to forgetfully just step into the road without checking.
Drivers know that not paying adequate attention can be dangerous even fatal to themselves &/or others.
Both have responsibilities to uphold and both parties clearly failed in this objective.
Very little info is stated about the road or why the driver failed to observe the ped's potential action.

The legal definitions of :
Homicide : (here)
Quote:
The killing of one human being by another human being.
Although the term homicide is sometimes used synonymously with murder, homicide is broader in scope than murder. Murder is a form of criminal homicide; other forms of homicide might not constitute criminal acts. These homicides are regarded as justified or excusable. For example, individuals may, in a necessary act of Self-Defense, kill a person who threatens them with death or serious injury, or they may be commanded or authorized by law to kill a person who is a member of an enemy force or who has committed a serious crime. Typically, the circumstances surrounding a killing determine whether it is criminal. The intent of the killer usually determines whether a criminal homicide is classified as murder or Manslaughter and at what degree.
English courts developed the body of Common Law on which U.S. jurisdictions initially relied in developing their homicide statutes. Early English common law divided homicide into two broad categories: felonious and non-felonious. Historically, the deliberate and premeditated killing of a person by another person was a felonious homicide and was classified as murder. Non-felonious homicide included justifiable homicide and excusable homicide. Although justifiable homicide was considered a crime, the offender often received a pardon. Excusable homicide was not considered a crime.
and ...
Quote:
Justifiable or Excusable Homicide
A homicide may be justifiable or excusable by the surrounding circumstances. In such cases, the homicide will not be considered a criminal act. A justifiable homicide is a homicide that is commanded or authorized by law. For instance, soldiers in a time of war may be commanded to kill enemy soldiers. Generally, such killings are considered justifiable homicide unless other circumstances suggest that they were not necessary or that they were not within the scope of the soldiers' duty. In addition, a public official is justified in carrying out a death sentence because the execution is commanded by state or federal law.

Quote:
Other Defenses
Other legal defenses to a charge of criminal homicide include insanity, necessity, accident, and intoxication. Some of these defenses may provide an absolute defense to a charge of criminal homicide; some will not. For instance, a successful defense of voluntary intoxication generally will allow an individual to avoid prosecution for a premeditated murder, but typically it will not allow an individual to escape liability for any lesser charges, such as second-degree murder or manslaughter. As with any defense to a criminal charge, the accused's mental state will be a critical determinant of whether he or she had the requisite intent or mental capacity to commit a criminal homicide.
and ...
Quote:
Euthanasia and Physician-Assisted Suicide
The killing of oneself is a suicide, not a homicide. If a person kills another person in order to end the other person's pain or suffering, the killing is considered a homicide. It does not matter if the other person is about to die or is terminally ill just prior to being killed; the law generally views such a killing as criminal. Thus, a "mercy killing," or act of Euthanasia, is generally considered a criminal homicide.

Homicidal : here
Quote:
homicidal adjective - likely to murder - a homicidal maniac
and here
Quote:
the killing of one person by another


The driver we can be pretty sure had no intention of killing another person.
We do not know if suicide was the ped's intention but commonly not.
Did the compensation occur just because it could(as suggested earlier - could falling down steps cause similar injuries).

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PostPosted: Sun Nov 07, 2010 22:33 
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dcbwhaley wrote:
Steve wrote:
Any act that leads to a human death is, by definition, homicide.
Any tendency to commit that death is, by definition, homicidal.


I am not sure what "tendency to commit death means".

I don't believe you understand any of what we have been discussing, unless you have been wantonly trolling. Honestly Dave, do you think this has painted you in a good light at all (your accepted mistake aside)

dcbwhaley wrote:
If by that you mean behaving in manner which might cause death then that is not homicidal.

There is a difference between 'being possible' and 'having intent/tendencies'.

dcbwhaley wrote:
A death must occur for the action to be homicidal.

...

I don't need to show mens rea. I death occured the action which caused it was homicide.

You are confusing homicide with homicidal - again!
There must be intent (or a tendency) for the behaviour to be homicidal; it is a behaviour: 1, 2

dcbwhaley wrote:
Quote:
Any right thinking person will easily (and correctly) understand that one's actions can lead to death without one being homicidal, as well understanding that one can be homicidal without actually resulting with any deaths.

No no no! Dictionary definition of homicide is Killing of a human being esp by another. You are trying to redefine the word to include some element of criminality - watching too much CSI Miama perhaps. :)

Please don't misrepresent my posts, I have said no such thing. Please reread, but this time please take Pete's advice earlier in this thread.
I've never seen an episode of CSI (or anything like that); in fact I don't watch any TV at all - really!

dcbwhaley wrote:
Quote:
Let's consider the unfortunate pedestrian in this particular case: your flawed logic also yields the conclusion that this pedestrian must have been suicidal - is that right Dave, or could the pedestrian have been merely negligent (without being suicidal)?

Unlike homicide the definition of suicide - Intentional self-slaughter - does include intent. So, indeed, the pedestrian was negligent rather than suicidal.

So where is the 'intent' with the driver? Do you see what I was getting at now Dave? :roll: Wasn't I saying exactly that from the start? :roll:
So why must one party have intent and the other cannot? That's a nice bit of bias you displayed there!

dcbwhaley wrote:
But it doesn't destroy my argument that any action which causes death is , by definition homicidal.

Again you are confusing homicide with homicidal. One is an act (regardless of tendency); the other is a tendency (regardless of act).

dcbwhaley wrote:
RobinXe wrote:
Be that as it may, I was wondering how long it would take you to realise that nobody was killed in the case at hand.

Yes, rather stupid of me, but it did provoke an interesting argument.

No, it provoked only a silly one. I'm considering splitting the thread so save everyone else from this silliness.

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