MrGrumpyCyclist wrote:
RobinXe wrote:
So let's be clear, you are saying that when we intentionally impede other road users behind us as a means to prevent them from potentially doing something which might increase our perceived danger to ourselves we have indeed failed in our attempts to practice good roadcraft, and are merely doing so for our own convenience and perception of safety, there being other options which protect us just as well or better without putting us at odds with others?
I admit I haven't read your blog, tldr I'm afraid dear chap, we are discussing one specific issue here, I'm sure you could be a good fellow and answer yes or no, no?
The problem I have is that you are asking for a single specific answer to a question that is really quite generic, so the answer is "it depends". You have also asked a loaded question (again), and confounded a number of different issues in the one question. But I will attempt to provide a balanced response as best I can.
The first part asks whether I think it is appropriate to "intentionally impede other road users", so this is specifically about intent. The answer to that part is: "no, it is not appropriate to intentionally impede other road users".
The second part is asking about "[taking up a road position to] prevent [other road users] from potentially doing something which might increase our perceived danger to ourselves". In this case, you are asking about a different intent, and my answer is "sometimes". It will sometimes be the case that other road users are impeded as a side effect of adopting a particular road position, so it is a matter for the cyclist to assess all the factors, including safety of themselves and others , convenience of themselves and others, and any other factors and make a decision about how to proceed. In some cases, it may need some negotiation and, as I have said, that usually works. In some cases, you may come across an ignorant bully, and in that cases, the sensible strategy is to defer to them (and then report them to the police if they actually did something really dangerous).
Now, you can take this as a genuine attempt to answer your question honestly, or you can continue to pursue the approach that is just looking for an argument, but this is my answer to your question and I will not be answering it again now.
False dichotomy fallacy, I can pursue a third avenue, which is again seeking clarification on an answer which is equivocal at best. You seem to be essentially saying that it is not acceptable to intentionally obstruct others in one paragraph, and then saying that it sometimes is, for cyclists, in the next. It's a pretty massive contradiction, especially when you consider that the second half of the single issue you have chosen to separate is wholly subordinate to the first; ie the intentional obstruction is the effect, which you say is never acceptable, and yet the second part is the means, which you seem to have less of a problem with.
I'd be interested to know which confounding factors you feel I have added, the basic question seems pretty straightforward, whether it is acceptable for cyclists to intentionally obstruct others. The fact that this thread has been discussing the specific case of doing so because it makes the cyclist feel safer without inconveniencing them need not muddy the waters, you can just answer the question in the previous sentence if you would like, it should be a simple yes or no, even for you.
So while I don't doubt your honesty, this answer seems to indicate that you are either confused, or not being genuine. Your stated unwillingness to debate further, akin to "no comment", merely increases suspicion that you are well aware that your "it's not ok to obstruct others/it's ok for cyclists sometimes" standpoint reveals your biased attitude towards other road users.