willcove wrote:
Sixy_the_red wrote:
Quite frankly, I'd be absolutely disgusted if a motorist (driving in a normal and sensible fassion, obviously) was prosecuted for colliding with a 'stealth cyclist'.
Me too. However (and this is the point of asking the question) on uk.rec.cycling certain members think that the motorist would have been culpably negligent and there was a strong hint of "driving without due care and attention". Could they be correct?
Yeah, sadly I think they could. The fact that a hazard it hard to see does not absolve a driver from having a responsibility to see it. I think this applies morally as well as legally.
I had a 'nearly-incident' involving a stealth cyclist a couple of years back. I think I wrote about it in here, but I can't find it. I'm driving on an unlit single carriageway country road at night. There's one vehicle ahead and a nice straight suitable for overtaking. I move out to overtake and am mostly past the overtakee when I can flick on my mainbeams. I can now see an oncoming 'stealth' cyclist maybe 300 yards or so ahead. It's safe enough and I've finished overtaking before I pass the oncoming cyclist, but it could have been very nasty if the cyclist had been 4 or 5 seconds earlier. I'd like to think I would have seen him, but it's hard to be sure. The road certainly wasn't wide enough to overtake safely with a cyclist oncoming. The fact that the cyclist was on the right means that my dips never lit him up at all. I can't remember if the overtakee was stuck on dips (a dippy!). Maybe he was on mainbeams, but the oncoming cyclist was simply too far off at the planning stages of the overtake.
I do know that I could never have forgiven myself if I'd hit him, irrespective of the fact that he wasn't visible to normal standards. And that in itself makes me 'angry' about stealth cyclists. They are being cavalier with my life as well as theirs.
In law, as I understand it, a cyclist is pretty much a pedestrian. The test that would be applied after the event is not 'was the cyclist obeying the rules' but 'would the driver have been able to avoid a similarly visible pedestrian'. When this test fails (i.e. the driver would not have been able to avoid s a similarly visible pedestrian) then I think the offence of careless (or dangerous) driving is probably complete.