I say, BW... You seem to be getting yourself into a bit of a tangle, and displaying, despite your obvious grasp of logic, a rather tenuous and somewhat "Unwinesque" acquaintance with the common law.
basingwerk wrote:
Negligence is a big source of litigation, and a lot of law is built around it. Or do you believe that a surgeon who nips out for a fag while he’s operating on you isn’t negligent!?! I think your argument is as dead as the surgeon’s patient!
He may be very foolhardy, but in common law you would be unable to take action for damages in tort unless harm came from his behaviour.
You referenced "Wikipedia" on negligence, however, you can't have read it very carefully as it's quite explicit in its statement... "In order to prove negligence, it is not necessary to prove harm, but in order for a cause of action to rest in tort, harm must be proven. Hence, it would be meaningless to sue someone for negligence if no harm resulted."
basingwerk wrote:
Now, is this your attempt to make speed limits look special, so that you can convince people to excuse speed negligence, which causes a large proposition of the road deaths? Hm… what an odd argument you are trying to make!
Unfortunately, the "speed negligence" is nearly always at a perfectly legal speed - being "inappropriate" rather than "illegal", not a very strong argument for keeping to limits.
basingwerk wrote:
People have legal duties to be constantly vigilant in many areas of life, and many examples exist. Please stop twisting and turning on this. Speed limits are just another responsibility, as you would well know if you have ever operated a large milling machine, a spinning line in a yarn factory, a boiler in a power station or a conveyor belt in a bale handling system. It’s splitting hairs to say anything else. So let’s quit that – you are in a dead end.
You seem to make no distinction between the vigilance necessary to prevent immediate damage or injury and that necessary to prevent a purely technical offence being committed.
basingwerk wrote:
I’ve stripped away the BS to get the nub of the matter. There are plenty of these as well. Trespass is the first that comes to mind. Whenever you use a pavement, you are working on the margin of non-compliance, so no luck, old chum.
No. Trespass is a tort and to receive any restitution for same it is necessary to prove damage has occurred, or alternatively to injucnt the trespasser to forbid them from further trespass. There is no more nonsensical notice than that saying "Trespassers will be prosecuted".

basingwerk wrote:
The unique property of speeding is getting away again. Now for some more. Payment. Whenever you pay for an article, you give the exact change, which means you are on the threshold of a small degree of theft. Again, that uniqueness that you perceived does not exist. There are more example, but I won’t put you through anymore.
You'll have to try a lot harder and find some correct examples...
Payment / Theft... The Theft Act refers to "the dishonest misappropriation of goods belonging to another with intent permanently to deprive". Firstly, the action of paying comes nowhere near this unless you intentionally set out to underpay and hide the underpayment. Innocent underpayment (ie mistake) has no intention ("mens rea" - literally "guilty mind") and thus is not theft. It may be "taking a pecuniary advantage" but that's not what you were talking about....
Speeding being an offence of Strict Liability has no need for mens rea, the act is deemed to imply the intention... It's a totally different class of offence.
You're painting yourself into a corner...
